This recent study in Pharmacoepidemiolgy and Drug Safety suggests that long term warfarin use leads to more aggressive cancer (as opposed to never users). However, the same authors have shown that warfarin reduces the incidence of prostate cancer in this population.
Is it not just as likely that the warfarin use is more effective versus less agressive cancers as a mildly anti-cancer agent?
I'm curious as to why this interpretation of the data was not pursued
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